Lesson 5.1: The Solution (The Black-Scholes-Merton Formula)

Welcome to Module 5! In our last module, we achieved the 'impossible.' We started with a random, subjective model for an option's price (dV) and, by using Itô's Lemma and a 'magic' delta-hedging trick, we eliminated all the randomness (dWt) and all the subjectivity (μ).

This left us with the Black-Scholes-Merton PDE:

Vt+rStVS+12σ2St22VS2rV=0\frac{\partial V}{\partial t} + r S_t \frac{\partial V}{\partial S} + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2 S_t^2 \frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial S^2} - rV = 0

This is the "blueprint" for the option's price. It's a fundamental law that the price must obey to prevent a "free-lunch" (arbitrage) opportunity.

The 'Problem' vs. The 'Answer'

That PDE is the problem we need to solve. It's not the answer. A client doesn't want a PDE; they want a price in dollars and cents.

The full mathematical derivation that "solves" this PDE is one of the most complex in finance (it involves transforming it into the "Heat Equation" from physics, solving that, and then transforming it back).

We will not do that here. That is a "pure math" exercise.

Our goal as quants is to take the famous solution and understand what it means. We are going to deconstruct it, piece by piece, so you understand the financial intuition. This is the "Holy Grail" formula of finance.

The Black-Scholes-Merton Formula for a Call Option (C)

C(S,t)=StN(d1)Ker(Tt)N(d2)C(S, t) = S_t N(d_1) - K e^{-r(T-t)} N(d_2)

This formula looks intimidating. But it's just a simple idea dressed in complex math:

Price of Option = (What you EXPECT to GET) - (What you EXPECT to PAY)

Let's break down both halves of that sentence.

Part 1: The "Expected Cost" (The Easy Part)

Let's look at the second half of the formula first. This is the "what you expect to pay" part.

Expected Cost=Ker(Tt)N(d2)\text{Expected Cost} = K e^{-r(T-t)} N(d_2)

This is the present value of the strike price KK you *might* have to pay. Let's break it down into its three pieces.

  • KK: This is the Strike Price (e.g., $100). It's the fixed amount of cash you must pay at expiration (time TT) to get the stock.
  • er(Tt)e^{-r(T-t)}: This is the Present Value Discount Factor. This is "Finance 101" from Module 0. You don't pay KK today; you pay it in the future (at time TT). This term calculates the "present value" of that future payment. It answers: "How much money would I have to put in a risk-free bank account today at rate rr to have exactly KK dollars at time TT?" It's always less than KK, because a dollar today is worth more than a dollar tomorrow.
  • N(d2)N(d_2): This is the "Probability Calculator." This is the most brilliant part. You don't always have to pay KK. You only pay KK if the option is "in-the-money" (if ST>KS_T > K). N(d2)N(d_2) is the risk-neutral probability that your option will expire in-the-money. N()N(\cdot) is the "Cumulative Normal Distribution" function. It just tells you the probability of an outcome happening. N(d2)N(d_2) is a magic number (calculated by d2d_2) that gives us Prob(ST>K)\text{Prob}(S_T > K).

Conclusion for Part 1:

The "Expected Cost" term, Ker(Tt)N(d2)K e^{-r(T-t)} N(d_2), is just:

($100 you must pay) × (Discounted to today's value) × (Probability you'll actually have to pay it)

This is a beautiful, intuitive concept.

Part 2: The "Expected Benefit" (The "Tricky" Part)

Now let's look at the first half of the formula. This is the "what you expect to get" part.

Expected Benefit=StN(d1)\text{Expected Benefit} = S_t N(d_1)

This part is more subtle.

  • StS_t: This is the Stock Price today.
  • N(d1)N(d_1): This is another "Probability Calculator."

It's tempting to think this term is just `(Expected Future Stock Price) * (Probability of Getting It)`. It's almost that, but it's much more clever.

The term StN(d1)S_t N(d_1) is the Present Value of the stock you might receive at expiration.

The "Aha!" Moment (Connecting to Module 4):

Remember our "magic" hedge ratio Δ\Delta? We proved that to be risk-free, we had to hold Δ\Delta shares of the stock, where Δ=VS\Delta = \frac{\partial V}{\partial S}. It turns out that when you solve the Black-Scholes PDE, you find this amazing identity:

Δ=CS=N(d1)\Delta = \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} = N(d_1)

The "Delta" of our call option is exactly N(d1)N(d_1)!

Therefore, the "Expected Benefit" term, StN(d1)S_t N(d_1), can be rewritten as:

StΔS_t \cdot \Delta

This is the value of the stock side of our delta-hedged portfolio!

Conclusion for Part 2:

The "Expected Benefit" term is simply the current stock price (StS_t) multiplied by the option's sensitivity (N(d1)N(d_1) or Δ\Delta). It's the "share" of the stock that the option "acts like" it owns right now.

Part 3: The Full Story (The "d" Variables)

Let's put our two, newly-translated pieces back together:

C=(StΔ)(Ker(Tt)N(d2))C = (S_t \cdot \Delta) - (K e^{-r(T-t)} \cdot N(d_2))

The entire Black-Scholes formula is just the value of a leveraged bet on the stock. It's the value of the "Delta-equivalent" shares you "own" (StN(d1)S_t N(d_1)), minus the present value of the "loan" you'll need to pay to get them (Ker(Tt)N(d2)K e^{-r(T-t)} N(d_2)).

The "Magic Calculators" d1d_1 and d2d_2

So what are d1d_1 and d2d_2? They are just the "engines" that calculate the probabilities N(d1)N(d_1) and N(d2)N(d_2). You don't need to memorize them, but you must understand what goes into them.

d1=ln(St/K)+(r+12σ2)(Tt)σTtd_1 = \frac{\ln(S_t/K) + (r + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t)}{\sigma\sqrt{T-t}}
d2=d1σTtd_2 = d_1 - \sigma\sqrt{T-t}

This formula looks like a nightmare, but it's just a "signal-to-noise" ratio.

  • The Numerator (The "Signal"):
    • ln(St/K)\ln(S_t/K): This is the "value" part. It asks, "Is the option in-the-money now?"
    • (r+12σ2)(Tt)(r + \frac{1}{2}\sigma^2)(T-t): This is the "growth" part. It's the total expected drift of the stock in the risk-neutral world (including our Itô Correction term 12σ2\frac{1}{2}\sigma^2!).
  • The Denominator (The "Noise"):
    • σTt\sigma\sqrt{T-t}: This is the total volatility of the stock from now until expiration. (Notice our "weird scaling" rule t\sqrt{t} right there!)

d1d_1 and d2d_2 are just numbers that package up all 5 of our key inputs (S,K,t,r,σS, K, t, r, \sigma) and feed them to the N()N(\cdot) probability calculator.

What's Next? (The 'Hook')

    We have the formula! We have the answer.

    But for a quant, this is just the beginning. The "answer" CC is a static price. The real job of a quant is risk management, which is dynamic.

    The formula C(S,t,K,r,σ)C(S, t, K, r, \sigma) is a "master function" that connects our price to all 5 key inputs. Our real job is to find the derivatives of this function.

    How does CC change when SS changes? CS\to \frac{\partial C}{\partial S} \to Delta

    How does CC change when tt changes? Ct\to \frac{\partial C}{\partial t} \to Theta

    How does CC change when σ\sigma changes? Cσ\to \frac{\partial C}{\partial \sigma} \to Vega

    In our next lessons, we will explore The "Greeks". We will finally see how all the abstract partial derivatives from our PDE (VS\frac{\partial V}{\partial S}, 2VS2\frac{\partial^2 V}{\partial S^2}, etc.) are given concrete, computable formulas, and how traders use them to manage billions of dollars in risk.

Up Next: The Greeks: Delta